Pharmacy MCQ Quiz - Objective Question with Answer for Pharmacy - Download Free PDF

• Crude drug adulteration is a major concern in Pharmacognosy and drug quality control. It involves any intentional or unintentional practice that compromises the purity, safety, and efficacy of natural drugs.
• Statement 1: ✅ Correct. Substituting a genuine drug with a **cheaper, inferior plant** is a common form of **intentional adulteration**, especially when the authentic source is costly or scarce.
• Statement 2: ✅ Correct. The **deliberate addition of foreign matter** such as sand, stones, or starch to increase weight or bulk is a classic case of **intentional adulteration** aimed at economic gain.
• Statement 3: ✅ Correct. **Using exhausted drugs** (after extraction of active constituents) and mixing them with fresh batches is termed **sophisticated adulteration** and is hard to detect without chemical testing.
• Statement 4: ❌ Incorrect. Adulteration can be both **intentional** and **accidental**. Accidental adulteration may occur due to lack of knowledge, misidentification, or improper handling.
• Statement 5: ✅ Correct. Adulteration can significantly **reduce the efficacy** and **safety** of drugs by altering their chemical composition and pharmacological action, posing health risks.

• Rationale: Incorrect. Statement 4 is false because adulteration can also be intentional. Additionally, this option ignores statement 1, which is correct and important.

• Rationale: Incorrect. Statement 4 is incorrect and statement 3 (sophisticated adulteration) is wrongly excluded. This makes the option invalid.

• Rationale: Incorrect. While these statements are true, it omits statement 2, which is an essential point regarding intentional adulteration practices.

• The correct combination is **statements 1, 2, 3, and 5**. These comprehensively describe the methods, intent, and effects of crude drug adulteration, which is critical for ensuring drug quality and patient safety in Pharmacognosy.

• This question evaluates conceptual understanding of **glycosides**, a class of phytoconstituents found in many medicinal plants. Glycosides consist of two parts: a sugar component and a non-sugar component (aglycone).
• Statement 1: ✅ Correct. Glycosides are chemical compounds where a **sugar (glycone)** is bound to a **non-sugar moiety (aglycone)** via a glycosidic bond. This is a standard definition in pharmacognosy.
• Statement 2: ❌ Incorrect. The **aglycone** is the **non-sugar** part of the glycoside, not the sugar part. The sugar part is called the **glycone**. This is a common conceptual error.
• Statement 3: ✅ Correct. **Cardiac glycosides** (e.g., digoxin) are generally **poorly water-soluble** due to the nature of their aglycone (steroidal) moiety, which is lipophilic.
• Statement 4: ✅ Correct. Glycosides can be **hydrolyzed** in the presence of **dilute acids or enzymes**, breaking the bond between sugar and aglycone, releasing both components.

• Rationale: This statement is incorrect. The aglycone is the **non-sugar** component. The sugar component is called the **glycone**. These two together form a glycoside.

• Among the four statements, **1, 3, and 4** are correct. Understanding the structure, solubility, and hydrolysis of glycosides is essential in Pharmacognosy for identifying their pharmacological roles and analytical behavior.

• This question assesses your understanding of the specific plant parts used in the preparation of important herbal drugs in Pharmacognosy. Each plant has a distinct part used based on its active constituents and traditional therapeutic applications.
• Senna – The **leaf** is the primary part used for its content of anthraquinone glycosides (sennosides), which act as a laxative.
• Ginger – The **rhizome** (underground stem) is used. It contains volatile oils and gingerols that provide carminative, antiemetic, and anti-inflammatory effects.
• Cinchona – The **bark** of this plant contains alkaloids such as quinine and is used mainly for its antimalarial properties.
• Rauwolfia – The **root** is the part used. It contains the alkaloid reserpine, which is used for antihypertensive and sedative effects.

• Rationale: Incorrect. Senna is wrongly matched with root instead of leaf. Ginger is incorrectly paired with leaf instead of rhizome. Rauwolfia is wrongly matched with bark instead of root.

• Rationale: Incorrect. Senna is incorrectly matched with bark instead of leaf, and Rauwolfia with rhizome instead of root. The overall matching shows confusion between stem and underground parts.

• Rationale: Incorrect. Senna is incorrectly paired with rhizome and Rauwolfia with leaf, which are not the correct plant parts used in drug formulation.

• The correct pairing of drugs with their plant parts is: Senna – Leaf, Ginger – Rhizome, Cinchona – Bark, Rauwolfia – Root. These identifications are essential in Pharmacognosy for authentication, standardization, and proper therapeutic usage of crude drugs.

• This question evaluates the understanding of therapeutic applications of plant-based natural drugs in Pharmacognosy. Each plant listed is associated with a specific pharmacological action due to its bioactive constituents.
• Liquorice contains glycyrrhizin and is commonly used as an expectorant in treating cough and respiratory issues due to its soothing effect on the mucous membranes.
• Senna contains anthraquinone glycosides such as sennosides, making it a well-known laxative used for treating constipation.
• Nux vomica contains strychnine and brucine, which act as CNS stimulants, though they are toxic and used under careful regulation.
• Ergot contains ergot alkaloids that produce uterine muscle contractions, classifying it as an oxytocic drug, especially in obstetrics for postpartum hemorrhage control.

• Rationale: Incorrect. Liquorice is mistakenly matched with CNS stimulant, while it is primarily used as an expectorant. Senna is wrongly linked to expectorant, instead of its correct use as a laxative.

• Rationale: Incorrect. Senna is incorrectly matched with oxytocic, and Ergot is placed under CNS stimulant, which is inaccurate. This option misplaces all therapeutic categories.

• Rationale: Incorrect. Liquorice is wrongly matched with oxytocic, and Senna with CNS stimulant. Such mismatches display a misunderstanding of the core pharmacognostic therapeutic roles.

• The correct therapeutic mappings are: Liquorice – Expectorant, Senna – Laxative, Nux vomica – CNS stimulant, and Ergot – Oxytocic. These associations are essential for understanding how plant-based drugs function pharmacologically and are used in therapeutic settings.

• This question assesses knowledge of the identification tests used in phytochemical screening of natural products, which is essential in Pharmacognosy for drug authentication and quality control.
• Alkaloids are nitrogenous compounds identified by Dragendorff’s test, which gives an orange-red precipitate indicating presence of alkaloids.
• Glycosides, particularly cardiac glycosides, are confirmed using the Keller-Killiani test, which gives a reddish-brown ring at the junction of two layers.
• Tannins are phenolic compounds detected by the Ferric chloride test, which produces a blue-black or green color.
• Steroids are identified by the Legal’s test, which involves reaction with sodium nitroprusside in pyridine, giving a red color.

• Rationale: Incorrect. Alkaloids are wrongly matched with Legal’s test, and glycosides with Dragendorff’s. These tests are not used for those respective phytoconstituents, leading to confusion in compound identification.

• Rationale: Incorrect. This option completely mismatches the tests: alkaloids with Keller-Killiani, glycosides with ferric chloride, and tannins with Legal’s test. All are scientifically incorrect associations.

• Rationale: Incorrect. Tannins are wrongly matched with Dragendorff’s test and alkaloids with ferric chloride, which do not apply. Steroids matched with Keller-Killiani is also false.

• The correctly matched pairings are: Alkaloids – Dragendorff’s test, Glycosides – Keller-Killiani test, Tannins – Ferric chloride test, Steroids – Legal’s test. This set of matches is fundamental for identification and evaluation of crude drugs in Pharmacognosy and pharmaceutical quality control.

• Calcitonin is a hormone produced by the parafollicular cells (also known as C cells) of the thyroid gland. It plays a crucial role in calcium and phosphate metabolism.
• Calcitonin helps to regulate calcium levels in the blood by inhibiting the activity of osteoclasts, the cells that break down bone, thereby promoting the deposition of calcium into bones.
• The secretion of calcitonin is primarily stimulated by increased blood calcium levels. When calcium levels are high, calcitonin helps to lower them to maintain homeostasis.

• Rationale: The parathyroid glands, typically four small glands located on the back of the thyroid gland, secrete parathyroid hormone (PTH). PTH increases blood calcium levels by stimulating osteoclast activity, increasing calcium absorption in the intestines, and reducing calcium loss in the urine.

• Rationale: The adrenal glands, located on top of each kidney, produce a variety of hormones including cortisol, aldosterone, and adrenaline. These hormones regulate metabolism, immune response, blood pressure, and stress responses, but are not involved in calcium regulation.

• Rationale: The thymus gland, located behind the sternum and between the lungs, is primarily involved in the development of the immune system, particularly in the maturation of T-lymphocytes (T-cells). It does not secrete calcitonin or any hormones related to calcium regulation.

• Among the given options, the thyroid is the gland responsible for secreting calcitonin. This hormone plays a vital role in calcium homeostasis in the body, distinguishing it from the functions of the parathyroid, adrenal, and thymus glands.

• Moist heat sterilization is a method used to eliminate all forms of microbial life, including spores, through the application of high-temperature steam under pressure.
• The standard temperature for effective moist heat sterilization is 121°C (250°F). At this temperature, steam under pressure can penetrate and kill microorganisms by denaturing their proteins.
• This process usually occurs in an autoclave, a specialized device that uses pressurized steam to achieve sterilization. The typical pressure maintained during this process is 15 psi (pounds per square inch), and the standard duration is about 15-20 minutes, depending on the volume and nature of the material being sterilized.
• Maintaining the appropriate temperature and pressure is crucial to ensure that all microorganisms, including heat-resistant spores, are effectively eradicated.

• Rationale: While 151°C could be used for dry heat sterilization, it is higher than the standard temperature used for moist heat sterilization. Dry heat sterilization operates at higher temperatures and for longer durations to achieve microbial kill, typically around 160-170°C.

• Rationale: A temperature of 91°C is insufficient for effective sterilization. Although it can kill some forms of bacteria and viruses, it is not high enough to ensure the complete destruction of all microorganisms, especially resistant spores.

• Rationale: 181°C is excessively high for moist heat sterilization and is more appropriate for dry heat sterilization. Such a high temperature is not necessary for moist heat processes, which rely on steam and pressure to achieve sterilization at a lower temperature.

• Among the given options, 121°C is the correct temperature for moist heat sterilization. This temperature, combined with high pressure, ensures the effective destruction of all microorganisms, making it the standard for processes carried out in autoclaves.

• DPT (Diphtheria, Pertussis, and Tetanus) vaccine is an essential part of the primary vaccination schedule for children. It provides immunity against three potentially serious bacterial infections.
• In primary vaccination, DPT is administered in three doses at one-month intervals. This schedule ensures that the child develops adequate immunity over a relatively short period.
• The first dose is typically given at 6 weeks of age, followed by the second dose at 10 weeks, and the third dose at 14 weeks. This timing aligns with the recommended immunization schedule by health authorities.

• Rationale: Administering DPT at three-month intervals would delay the complete primary immunization process, leaving the child vulnerable to the diseases for a longer period. This is not the recommended schedule for primary vaccination.

• Rationale: While booster doses of DPT are given later in childhood, the primary vaccination consists of only three doses. Administering five doses in quick succession is unnecessary and not part of the standard immunization protocol.

• Rationale: A single dose of DPT is insufficient to build the necessary immunity against diphtheria, pertussis, and tetanus. Multiple doses are required to ensure adequate and long-lasting protection.

• The correct schedule for primary DPT vaccination involves administering three doses at one-month intervals. This ensures timely and effective immunization against these serious bacterial infections, following the recommended guidelines by health authorities.

• Rennin and lactase are enzymes crucial for the digestion of milk. Rennin helps in the coagulation of milk, making it easier for the stomach to digest, while lactase breaks down lactose, the sugar found in milk, into glucose and galactose.
• In most humans, the production of these enzymes decreases significantly after infancy. By the age of two, the levels of rennin and lactase typically drop, making it harder for the body to digest milk as efficiently as it did during infancy.
• This decline in enzyme production is a natural process and is more pronounced in certain populations, leading to lactose intolerance in many adults.

• Rationale: While enzyme levels continue to decline, the significant drop-off usually occurs by the age of two, not three. By three, most children have already experienced the major decrease in rennin and lactase production.

• Rationale: By the age of five, most children have already passed the critical period of enzyme reduction. They might show signs of lactose intolerance, but the decline begins much earlier, typically by age two.

• Rationale: By age eight, the body has long since adjusted to the lower levels of rennin and lactase. The significant decline in these enzymes occurs much earlier, around the age of two.

• The correct answer is that rennin and lactase, the enzymes required to digest milk, disappear in the human body by the age of two. While enzyme levels continue to decline as children grow older, the most significant reduction happens by this age, which can lead to lactose intolerance in many individuals as they age.

To find the percentage of the total who failed the test, let's follow these steps:

1. Find the number of boys who passed and failed the test.
2. Find the number of girls who passed and failed the test.
3. Calculate the total number of students who passed and failed the test.
4. Determine the percentage of the total who failed the test.

• The S-A node, or sinoatrial node, is a small body of specialized muscle tissue in the wall of the right atrium of the heart.
• It acts as the natural pacemaker of the heart by generating electrical impulses that initiate each heartbeat.
• These electrical impulses cause the atria to contract and push blood into the ventricles, setting the rhythm and rate of the heartbeat.
• The S-A node ensures that the heart beats in a coordinated and rhythmic manner, which is crucial for effective blood circulation throughout the body.

• Rationale: The term "autoregulator" is not specific to the heart. It generally refers to mechanisms that automatically regulate a physiological process, such as blood flow or hormone levels, but it is not the term used for the S-A node.

• Rationale: "Time controller" is not a recognized term in cardiology. While the S-A node does control the timing of the heartbeat, this term is not used in medical terminology to describe it.

• Rationale: While this term might seem appropriate since the S-A node regulates heartbeats, "beat regulator" is not the standard term used in medical science. "Pacemaker" is the correct and widely accepted term.

• The S-A node is correctly referred to as the "pacemaker" of the heart. It plays a crucial role in maintaining the heart's rhythm and ensuring proper blood circulation.

• Tricyclic antidepressants (TCAs) are a class of medications that are primarily used to treat depression and other mood disorders. They work by increasing levels of norepinephrine and serotonin, two neurotransmitters, and blocking the action of acetylcholine, another neurotransmitter.
• Amitriptyline is a well-known TCA. It is commonly prescribed for major depressive disorder, anxiety disorders, and certain types of chronic pain. Amitriptyline works by inhibiting the reuptake of norepinephrine and serotonin, thereby increasing their levels in the brain.

• Rationale: Nefazodone is not a tricyclic antidepressant. It is a serotonin antagonist and reuptake inhibitor (SARI). It works differently by blocking serotonin receptors and inhibiting the reuptake of serotonin.

• Rationale: Fluoxetine is a selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor (SSRI). It primarily inhibits the reuptake of serotonin, thereby increasing its levels in the brain. It is not a tricyclic antidepressant.

• Rationale: Isocarboxazid is a monoamine oxidase inhibitor (MAOI), which works by inhibiting the activity of monoamine oxidase, an enzyme that breaks down neurotransmitters like serotonin and norepinephrine. It is not a tricyclic antidepressant.

• Among the given options, Amitriptyline is the tricyclic antidepressant. TCAs like Amitriptyline are known for their effectiveness in treating depression but also have a higher risk of side effects compared to newer classes of antidepressants.

• The sum of kinetic and potential energy of an object is referred to as its total mechanical energy.
• Mechanical energy is the energy associated with the motion and position of an object. It is a combination of kinetic energy (the energy of motion) and potential energy (the energy stored due to the object's position or configuration).
• Mechanical energy can be conserved in a closed system where only conservative forces, such as gravitational and elastic forces, are acting.

• Rationale: Electrical energy is the energy due to the movement of electrons in an electric field. It is not directly related to the sum of kinetic and potential energy of an object in the context of mechanical systems.

• Rationale: Chemical energy is stored in the bonds of chemical compounds and is released or absorbed during chemical reactions. It is not associated with the kinetic or potential energy used in describing mechanical systems.

• Rationale: Thermal energy is the internal energy of an object due to the kinetic energy of its molecules. It relates to temperature and heat, not directly to the macroscopic kinetic and potential energies of an object in a mechanical context.

• The principle of conservation of mechanical energy states that in the absence of non-conservative forces (e.g., friction, air resistance), the total mechanical energy of a system remains constant.
• In practical applications, mechanical energy is crucial in understanding the behavior of moving objects, machinery, and structures in fields such as classical mechanics, engineering, and physics.

• The sum of kinetic and potential energy of an object is its total mechanical energy. This concept is fundamental in understanding the dynamics of physical systems and is distinct from electrical, chemical, and thermal energies.

• Angio-oedema, also known as angioedema, is a condition characterized by deep swelling beneath the skin.
• It typically affects areas such as the face, lips, tongue, throat, and sometimes the intestines and other parts of the body.
• This swelling usually results from an allergic reaction, but can also be triggered by certain medications, insect bites, or hereditary factors.
• The swelling occurs due to increased permeability of the blood vessels in the skin, leading to leakage of fluid into surrounding tissues.

• Rationale: Adverse drug reactions affecting the gastrointestinal tract typically include symptoms such as nausea, vomiting, diarrhea, and abdominal pain. These are common side effects for many medications but are distinct from the swelling seen in angioedema.

• Rationale: Adverse drug reactions involving the liver can present as jaundice, elevated liver enzymes, and hepatic toxicity. Medications such as paracetamol (acetaminophen) in high doses or long-term use of certain antibiotics can lead to liver injury, but the primary symptom is not swelling as seen in angioedema.

• Rationale: Adverse drug reactions affecting the pancreas can lead to pancreatitis, characterized by severe abdominal pain, nausea, and elevated pancreatic enzymes. Drugs like azathioprine and certain diuretics can cause pancreatitis, but this is distinct from the skin manifestations of angioedema.

• It is crucial for patients experiencing angioedema to seek immediate medical attention, especially if swelling affects the throat, as it can obstruct the airway and lead to life-threatening situations.
• Treatment for angioedema typically includes antihistamines, corticosteroids, and in severe cases, epinephrine injections to reduce the swelling and manage the allergic response.
• Patients with a known history of angioedema should be cautious with medications that can trigger this reaction and may need to carry an emergency kit containing epinephrine.

• Angio-oedema primarily affects the skin, causing significant swelling that can be severe and requires prompt medical management. Understanding the distinction between angioedema and other adverse drug reactions affecting different organ systems is crucial for appropriate diagnosis and treatment.

• High Performance Liquid Chromatography (HPLC) is a powerful technique used to separate, identify, and quantify components in a mixture. The mobile phase, which carries the mixture through the column, is supplied by a mechanical pump.
• Pulses in the mobile phase can lead to unstable flow rates, affecting the reproducibility and accuracy of the chromatographic results. Therefore, it is crucial to smooth out these pulses.

• Purpose: Damping devices, often referred to as pulse dampers, are used to smooth out the pulses generated by the mechanical pump. This ensures a consistent and stable flow rate of the mobile phase through the HPLC system.
• Pulse Dampers: Pulse dampers work by absorbing the fluctuations or pulses in the pressure and then releasing the mobile phase at a more constant pressure. This leads to smoother flow through the column.
• Types of Pulse Dampers: Various designs are available, including gas pulse dampers, which use a compressible gas to buffer the pulses, and diaphragm pulse dampers, which use a flexible diaphragm to absorb pressure variations.
• Benefits: Using a damping device improves the reproducibility and reliability of the results, reduces baseline noise, and enhances peak resolution and sensitivity.

• Rationale: The injection process introduces the sample into the HPLC system. It does not play a role in smoothing out pulses in the mobile phase.

• Rationale: Gauze is not used in the context of HPLC for smoothing out pulses. It is typically associated with filtration or absorbing liquids, not for regulating flow in chromatographic systems.

• Rationale: Temperature control is crucial in HPLC for maintaining the stability and consistency of the mobile phase and column. However, it does not serve the function of smoothing out pulses generated by mechanical pumps.

• Pump Types: Various types of pumps are used in HPLC systems, including reciprocating piston pumps. These can generate pulses that need to be damped.
• Precision and Accuracy: The use of a damping device is integral for applications requiring high precision and accuracy, as consistent flow rates are critical for reliable results.
• System Integration: Modern HPLC systems often come with integrated pulse dampers. However, external pulse dampers can also be added to older systems to improve performance.

• In HPLC, a damping device is required to smooth out the pulses generated by the mechanical pump. This ensures that the mobile phase flows at a consistent rate, leading to more reliable and accurate chromatographic results.